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NEW QUESTION # 34
Part of the testing strategy indicates that you are going to be using systematic test design techniques. Your manager has asked that you present the main advantages of using these techniques at the next board meeting. Identify THREE main benefits of using systematic test design techniques within this company. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)
- A. More enhanced documentation and therefore higher repeatability and reproducibility
- B. Will guide experienced testers to find defects
- C. Will reduce the need for early reviews
- D. Easier to quickly adapt testing to changing requirements compared to experienced-based testing
- E. Will make non-systematic testing redundant
- F. Provides a way to differentiate depth of testing based on product risks by using different techniques
- G. Targets certain types of faults
Answer: A,F,G
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following is least likely to be used as a technique to identify project and product risks? 1 credit
- A. Brainstorming
- B. Independent assessments
- C. Inspections
- D. Expert interviews
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following product risks would be most effectively addressed just by static testing? 3 credits
- A. In the delivered application, one of the countries, as specified in the requirements, has not been correctly implemented.
- B. The successful bidder may not deliver all the required functionality on time.
- C. The application takes too long to process a request for additional cover.
- D. The test cases do not cover the key requirements.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 37
The test improvement project will take place in an organization developing a safety-critical avionics application. Which one of the following standards do you believe would be most appropriate to take into account for compliance during your assignment? 1 credit
- A. DO-178B
- B. BS 7925/2
- C. IEEE 829
- D. ISO 9126
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 38
You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring & diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed in the test plan? 1 credit
- A. Safety
- B. Availability
- C. Reliability
- D. Portability
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 39
In addition to introducing the new team member, you have decided to raise motivation. Which of the measures listed below would be the best measure to take in order to increase the motivation of the team? 2 credits
- A. Allow people to take some time off
- B. Provide more time for testing in the schedule
- C. Introduce entry criteria to the testing phase
- D. Organize a meeting with senior management in which they address the importance of good testing for this project
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 40
Part of the testing strategy indicates that you are going to be using systematic test design techniques. Your manager has asked that you present the main advantages of using these techniques at the next board meeting. Identify THREE main benefits of using systematic test design techniques within this company. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)
- A. More enhanced documentation and therefore higher repeatability and reproducibility
- B. Will guide experienced testers to find defects
- C. Will reduce the need for early reviews
- D. Easier to quickly adapt testing to changing requirements compared to experienced-based testing
- E. Will make non-systematic testing redundant
- F. Provides a way to differentiate depth of testing based on product risks by using different techniques
- G. Targets certain types of faults
Answer: A,F,G
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following are primary activities in conducting product risk analysis? [1]
- A. Risk management, risk assessment
- B. Risk identification, risk assessment
- C. Risk identification, risk testing
- D. Risk testing, risk management
Answer: B
Explanation:
Product risk analysis is the process of identifying and assessing the product risks that may affect the quality or functionality of the software under test1. Product risk analysis involves two primary activities: risk identification and risk assessment. Risk identification is the activity of finding, naming, and describing the risks that might affect the software under test2. Risk assessment is the activity of estimating the impact and probability of occurrence (likelihood) of the identified risks, and prioritizing them based on these factors3.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer. Option A is incorrect because risk testing and risk management are not primary activities of product risk analysis, but rather activities that follow or use the results of product risk analysis. Risk testing is the activity of designing, implementing, and executing tests based on the product risk levels to reduce the level of product risks and inform stakeholders of their status4. Risk management is the activity of planning, monitoring, and controlling the risks and the risk mitigation actions in the software project5. Option C is incorrect because risk identification and risk testing are not primary activities of product risk analysis, but rather activities that are part of product risk analysis and risk-based testing respectively. Option D is incorrect because risk management and risk assessment are not primary activities of product risk analysis, but rather activities that are part of risk management and product risk analysis respectively. References: 1: ISTQB Glossary, Product Risk Analysis 2: ISTQB Glossary, Risk Identification 3:
ISTQB Glossary, Risk Assessment 4: ISTQB Glossary, Risk-Based Testing 5: ISTQB Glossary, Risk Management : Product Risk Analysis (PRA) | TMap : Risk-Based Testing | ISTQB Glossary : Risk Analysis | ISTQB Glossary
NEW QUESTION # 42
A number of options have been suggested for the level of independence to be employed for the testing on the next project, and are shown below.
i. External test specialists perform non-functional testing.
ii. Testing is outsourced.
iii. Testing is carried out by the developer.
iv.
A separate test team carries out the testing.
v.Testing is performed by the business.
vi. Testing is performed by a different developer.
Which of the following orders the above in a correct order of independence? 1 credit
- A. ii, v, i, iii
- B. i, iv, v, vi
- C. i, ii, iv, vi
- D. ii, i, v, vi
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 43
The development manager is managing the review of the responses received from bidders, and has asked the in-house test manager to provide a review checklist for the test management aspects of the responses. Which of the following checkpoints would be appropriate? 2 credits
- A. The bidder's project test plan depicts a phased implementation with later delivery dates to be confirmed and states that test deliverables will be developed using IEEE 829 as a guide.
- B. The bidder's test policy should enforce that incident management fully conforms to IEEE 1044.
- C. The bidder's project strategy shows that the data content of all the test environments conforms to EU standards.
- D. The bidder's test plan shows that the application will be delivered for acceptance in six months time.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 44
Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
- A. (i) and (ii)
- B. (ii) and (iv)
- C. (ii) and (iii)
- D. (i) and (iv)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Topic 2, Scenario 2 "Reviews"
A software development organization wants to introduce some specific improvements to its test process. Currently, most of their testing resources are focussedon system testing. They are developing embedded software, and do not have a simulation environment to enable them toexecute software modules on the development host. They have been advised that introducing inspections and reviews could be the most appropriate step forward.
NEW QUESTION # 45
You are the Test Manager of a risk-based testing effort. You develop the following graph to show residual risk. Assume that "Risks mitigated" represents passed tests and "Risks not mitigated" represents failed tests and other discovered failures.
Which of the following answers best represents what the graph shows? [3]
- A. Project is at risk due to the number of failed tests
- B. Project is ahead of schedule due to number of risks addressed
- C. Project is on schedule based on total number of test cases executed
- D. Project is behind schedule based on bug fix rate
Answer: A
Explanation:
The graph indicates that a significant portion of risks, 29%, have not been mitigated, which suggests that these are either failed tests or other discovered failures. This level of unmitigated risk puts the project at risk, as it implies that there are still substantial issues that need to be addressed.
References:The ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager documents outline the importance of risk-based testing and the interpretation of residual risk graphs. These graphs are used to communicate the current status of risk mitigation efforts in the project, and a high percentage of unmitigated risks is a clear indicator of potential problems1.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Risks should be constantly reviewed. Given the current situation, which one of the following factors is most likely to lead to a revised view of product risk? 3 credits
- A. The concerns over the user interface raises the likelihood of a risk in that area and increases the amount of test effort needed for the user interface, thereby limiting the test effort available for other parts of the test management tool.
- B. The concerns over the user interface may lead to changes to the interface which cannot be implemented by development in time for the second test iteration.
- C. The delivery of the application without the interface changes may upset the user community.
- D. The method used for test estimation is not accurate enough and hence the money spent on testing exceeded its budget.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 47
Based on the information given in the scenario, identify how the team could be improved most effectively? 2 credits
- A. By providing training on reviewing requirements
- B. By providing training in the payroll domain
- C. By providing a workshop on test design techniques
- D. By providing specific training on the systems being tested
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 48
In general, why is it NOT a good idea to estimate the testing effort based only on a percentage of development effort? Identify THREE valid reasons. 1 credit
- A. It builds on large set of historical data
- B. The percentage based technique only applies to the V life cycle model.
- C. The maturity of the organization, e.g. the quality of the test basis, quality of development testing, configuration management, availability of test tools, also influence the effort needed for testing.
- D. The quality of the development estimate may be poor.
- E. Using the same percentage every time does not address the level of risk of the application to be tested.
- F. In general bottom-up estimation is always better than top-down estimation.
- G. The result is almost always a too low estimate for the required test effort
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 49
Continuing with the Scenario described in the previous question, which of the following topics would you need to address in detail in the master test plan? 3 credits
- A. A description of dependencies between test cases
- B. A logical collection of test cases
- C. A list of boundary values for "advance amount"
- D. An approach to regression testing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following is likely to occur if reviewers do not have an adequate level of technical knowledge?
[1]
- A. There will be no impact as long as they have sufficient business knowledge.
- B. There will be no impact as long as they have sufficient process knowledge.
- C. The review will be shorter because any technical aspect can be skipped.
- D. The review is likely to be less efficient.
Answer: D
Explanation:
If reviewers do not have an adequate level of technical knowledge, they may not be able to identify and describe anomalies in the product or project under review1. They may also not be able to provide constructive feedback or suggestions for improvement2. This can result in a less efficient review, as the review objectives may not be met, the review process may take longer, or the review outcome may be of lower quality3.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer. Option A is incorrect because having sufficient business knowledge is not enough to perform a technical review, as business knowledge does not cover the technical aspects of the product or project4. Option B is incorrect because having sufficient process knowledge is not enough to perform a technical review, as process knowledge does not cover the technical aspects of the product or project4. Option D is incorrect because skipping any technical aspect can compromise the quality and completeness of the review, and may lead to defects or risks in the product or project5. References: 1: ISTQB Glossary, Reviewer 2: ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager Syllabus, Section 2.2.2 3: ISTQBAdvanced Level Test Manager Syllabus, Section 2.2.3 4: ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager Syllabus, Section
2.3.1 5: ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager Syllabus, Section 2.3.2
NEW QUESTION # 51
You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring & diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed in the test plan? 1 credit
- A. Safety
- B. Availability
- C. Reliability
- D. Portability
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 52
What is the purpose of tracking efficiency metrics for a formal review? [1]
- A. These metrics can be used to determine the quality of the reviewed object.
- B. These metrics can be used to determine if the review was a good use of resources.
- C. These metrics can be used to determine the speed with which defects were fixed.
- D. These metrics can be used to determine who participated in the review.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Efficiency metrics for a formal review are used to measure the cost-effectiveness of the review process, such as the time spent on the review, the number of defects found, and the return on investment1. These metrics can help to evaluate if the review was a good use of resources, such as human effort, money, and tools. Therefore, option B is the correct answer. Option A is incorrect because efficiency metrics do not track who participated in the review, but rather how they performed. Option C is incorrect because efficiency metrics do not measure the quality of the reviewed object, but rather the quality of the review process. Option D is incorrect because efficiency metrics do not measure the speed with which defects were fixed, but rather the speed with which defects were detected. References: 1: How to manage formal reviews & management audits? Skills, metrics ...
NEW QUESTION # 53
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