2024 Best CTAL-TM-001 Exam Preparation Material with New Dumps Questions
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CTAL-TM Certified Professional Salary
- England: £56673
- Europe:€66508
- United States: $73,763
- India:₹524039
What is the duration, language, and format of CTAL-TM Exam
- Language: English
- Number of Questions: 65
- Format: Multiple choices Questions
- Length of Examination: 180 minutes
- Passing score: 65%
How to Prepare For CTAL-TM Certification Exam
Preparation Guide for CTAL-TM Certification Exam
Introduction to CTAL-TM Exam
Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager(CTAL-TM), This is a rigorous professional certification program based on exams. The CTAL-TM certification is offered to candidates who pass the Tester Advanced Level Test Manager(CTAL-TM) of the International Board of Software Testing Qualifications (ISTQB).
This ISTQB course is intended for testing professionals who want to excel in a management or lead role. In this course, students will learn how to administer a testing project and execute a risk-based technique for testing. Students will also be examining how a technique correlates with test estimation, monitoring, and planning. During this course, students will learn how to send report to stakeholders, build successful test teams and implement significant test plans
The creation of the ISTQB exams is the responsibility of the councils of each member country so that they better reflect the language, use and specific conditions of the country. Unlike other English-based ISTQB exams that you can find, ASTQB exams are created as original exams for English speakers, not translated from another language. US employers recognize this and have expressed their preference for evaluators who have passed the ASTQB ISTQB exams.
Our world-renowned subject matter experts have worked very hard to create the ASTQB versions of the ISTQB exams and we believe that our exams are of the highest quality, without difficult questions. This gives you a better exam experience.
ISTQB Test Manager certification takes aspirants career to the next level. This certification adds a grat value to candidates skills and demonstrates their commitment to the testing profession and lead others as a manager in the organization. Certified professionals are recognized as an expert in software testing, quality, and project management.
Under your guidance, the team profile is raised as more effective and efficient in testing by practicing methods and techniques included in the Test Manager Certification series.
An Advanced Test Manager would be able to :
- Assess and report relevant and timely test status to project stakeholders.
- Organize and lead risk identification and risk analysis sessions and use the results of such sessions for test estimation, planning, monitoring and control.
- Participate in and lead test process improvement initiatives.
- Ensure proper communication within the test team and with other project stakeholders.
- Propose a business case for test activities which outlines the costs and benefits expected.
- Continuously monitor and control the test activities to achieve project objectives.
- Identify skills and resource gaps in their test team and participate in sourcing adequate resources.
- Create and implement test plans consistent with organizational policies and test strategies.
- Identify and plan necessary skills development within their test team.
NEW QUESTION # 10
As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
- A. Test execution tool
- B. Review tool
- C. Test design tool
- D. Static analysis tool
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 11
Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
- A. (i) and (ii)
- B. (ii) and (iv)
- C. (i) and (iv)
- D. (ii) and (iii)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Topic 2, Scenario 2 "Reviews"
A software development organization wants to introduce some specific improvements to its test process. Currently, most of their testing resources are focussedon system testing. They are developing embedded software, and do not have a simulation environment to enable them toexecute software modules on the development host. They have been advised that introducing inspections and reviews could be the most appropriate step forward.
NEW QUESTION # 12
As part of the test strategy, entry and exit criteria will be defined for each test level. Which is NOT a valid reason for using entry and exit criteria? 1 credit
- A. Exit criteria are used to decide on when to stop testing.
- B. Using entry and exit criteria will prevent software that is not or poorly tested from going to the next test level.
- C. Entry and exit criteria are a principal way for getting adequate resources.
- D. The expectation is that development testing is not adequate.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 13
You are testing a new product that will turn on the windshield wipers of a car when the sensorsdetect there is moisture on the windshield. Depending on the information returned from the sensors, the wipers will be turned on at one of the following speeds: slow intermittent, medium intermittent, fast intermittent, slow constant, medium constant, fast constant. Your team has identified the following test condition:
Test Condition 1.1.1 - Verify that the windshield wipers can go from slow constant to fast constant speed when the amount of moisture increases appropriately.
Your team has defined the following steps for a test case for this test condition:
1. Set the moisture sensor to request slow constant
2. Increase the moisture to set the sensor to request fast constant
3. Verify that the wipers respond with fast constant speed
Given this information, which of the following statements is correct? [2]
- A. The test case is traceable to the test condition and provides 100% statement coverage of the defined test condition.
- B. This test case is not traceable to the test condition.
- C. There is not enough information in the test condition to define a test case.
- D. This test case is traceable to the test condition and provides 100% requirements coverage of the defined test condition.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. The test case is traceable to the test condition and provides 100% statement coverage of the defined test condition. This is because the test case is derived from the test condition, and it covers all the possible outcomes of the test condition, such as the initial state, the input, and the expected output.
Statement coverage is a metric that measures the percentage of executable statements that are exercised by a test case. In this case, the test case exercises all the statements in the test condition, thus achieving 100% statement coverage. Statement Coverage - ISTQB not-for-profit association References: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Statement Coverage - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 14
Your test team has created a custom automation tool that will be used for an upcoming release. Now that the tool has been coded, what should be the next step? [1]
- A. Create the tool support guide
- B. Compare the new tool to open source tools
- C. Test the tool
- D. Perform an ROI study
Answer: C
Explanation:
The next step after creating a custom automation tool is to test the tool itself. This is to ensure that the tool is reliable, functional, and compatible with the system under test. Testing the tool involves verifying its features, performance, usability, security, and stability. Testing the tool also helps to identify and fix any defects or issues before using it for theactual testing of the product. ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager SyllabusTop
7 Automation Testing Tools to Consider References:
* ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager Syllabus
* Top 7 Automation Testing Tools to Consider - testRigor AI-Based ...
NEW QUESTION # 15
Which of the following can demotivate a tester? [1]
- A. When metrics indicate weaknesses in their testing
- B. When testing is cut short, resulting in a high number of production defects
- C. Receiving direct and honest feedback on areas to improve
- D. Working extra hours, resulting in a successful product deployment
Answer: B
Explanation:
This can demotivate a tester because it implies that the tester's work is not valued or respected by the management or the stakeholders. It also suggests that the tester's efforts and skills are wasted or ineffective, as the product quality is compromised and the customer satisfaction is reduced. Testing is cut short when there is insufficient time, budget, or resources allocated for testing, or when there is pressure to release the product without adequate testing. This can lead to frustration, dissatisfaction, and loss of confidence among the testers. Top 6 things that demotivate a developerHow to Demotivate Your Best Employees References:
* Top 6 things that demotivate a developer - Amsterdam Standard
* How to Demotivate Your Best Employees - HBS Working Knowledge
NEW QUESTION # 16
What is a "depth-first" risk-based testing technique? [1]
- A. Lowest risk test cases are executed first
- B. All risk items are tested at least once
- C. Non-functional test cases are executed first
- D. Highest risk test cases are executed first
Answer: D
Explanation:
A depth-first risk-based testing technique is a method of prioritizing and executing test cases based on the risk level of the features or functions to be tested. In this technique, the test cases with the highest risk are executed first, followed by the test cases with lower risks. This ensures that the most critical and likely areas of failure are tested thoroughly and early in the testing process. Risk Based Testing: Approach, Matrix, Process & Examples - Guru99 References: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, [Analytical Test Strategy: A Comprehensive Guide - LambdaTest]
NEW QUESTION # 17
You are the Test Manager on a new project. The schedule is aggressive and will require the team to work at peak efficiency. The requirements are not well defined yet, but it is clear that the project will be using new technologies. To help the developers meet the development schedule, an offshore group will be added to the development team.
At this time there is not enough budget to add more testing resources. The project stakeholders are very concerned about the quality of the delivered product and will be watching the project closely, particularly during the testing cycles. The exit criteria from the system test level require no open high priority/severity defects, 100% pass rate for all test cases covering risks that are classified as "high" or "very high", 95% pass rate for all "medium" risks and 75% pass rate for all "low" and "very low" risks.
Given this information, which of the activities of the standard test process are the most critical for the Test Manager to perform? [3]
- A. Project management, particularly regarding scheduling and budgeting
- B. Requirements reviews
- C. Test execution
- D. Test monitoring and control
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most critical activity of the standard test process for the Test Manager to perform in this scenario is test monitoring and control. This is because test monitoring and control involves measuring and evaluating the test progress, quality, and risks, and taking corrective actions when necessary. Given the aggressive schedule, the unclear requirements, the new technologies, the offshore development team, the limited testing resources, and the high stakeholder expectations, the Test Manager needs to closely monitor and control the testing activities to ensure that the test objectives and exit criteria are met, and that any deviations or issues are identified and resolved in a timely manner. Test Monitoring and Control - ISTQB not-for-profit association References: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Test Monitoring and Control - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 18
Which of the following is NOT a typical key challenge for testing in a RAD based development approach? 1 credit
- A. Time-boxing
- B. Re-usable test scripts for (automated) regression testing
- C. Project management and control
- D. No complete requirements specification
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 19
Your company just won a contract to create a new sales application and has committed to a very aggressive delivery timeline. Due to the quick turnaround your primary stakeholder wants to be heavily involved in the design and is very anxious to see the outcome. Because of this, your company has decided to use a spiral development approach. You have a defined test policy and typically use an analytical approach to testing, however, this approach will not work with the development approach.
What test strategy should be utilized? [3]
- A. Model-based
- B. Methodical
- C. Standard-compliant
- D. Reactive
Answer: D
Explanation:
A reactive test strategy is a test strategy that uses the actual behavior and results of the software under test to design and execute tests, without prior knowledge or documentation of the software1. A reactive test strategy should be utilized for a project that uses a spiral development approach, which is a type of iterative/incremental approach that adds risk analysis and prototyping activities to each iteration2. A reactive test strategy is suitable for a spiral development approach because it allows for flexibility, adaptability, and creativity in the testing process, as well as for early feedback, risk reduction, and continuous improvement in the software development process3. Therefore, option D is the correct answer. Option A is incorrect because a model-based test strategy is a test strategy that uses models to represent the desired behavior and structure of the software under test, and to derive test cases, test data, test procedures, and test oracles. A model-based test strategy may not work well with a spiral development approach, as it requires the availability and stability of the models, which may not be the case in a spiral development approach that involves frequent changes and refinements of the software under test. Option B is incorrect because a methodical test strategy is a test strategy that uses predefined test methods, techniques, and procedures to design and execute tests, such as equivalence partitioning, boundary value analysis, or decision table testing. A methodical test strategy may not work well with a spiral development approach, as it requires the availability and stability of the test basis, such as the requirements, specifications, or design documents, which may not be the case in a spiral development approach that involves frequent changes and refinements of the software under test. Option C is incorrect because a standard-compliant test strategy is a test strategy that follows a predefined set of standards, guidelines, or regulations to design and execute tests, such as ISO, IEEE, or CMMI. A standard-compliant test strategy may not work well with a spiral development approach, as it requires the compliance and consistency of the testing process, which may not be the case in a spiral development approach that involves frequent changes and refinements of the software under test. References: 1: ISTQB Glossary, Reactive Test Strategy 2:
ISTQB Glossary, Spiral Model 3: ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager Syllabus, Section 1.1.1 : Spiral Model in Software Development Life Cycle - Software Testing Material : Spiral Model - Tools QA : Strategic Test Management - ISTQB not-for-profit association : ISTQB Glossary, Model-Based Testing : ISTQB Glossary, Methodical Test Strategy : ISTQB Glossary, Standard-Compliant Test Strategy : ISTQB Foundation Level #39 - Test Approach and Strategy - Software Testing Mentor
NEW QUESTION # 20
You are responsible for porting a performance testing tool to a new operating system. You are at what stage in the tool's lifecycle? [1]
- A. Retirement
- B. Evolution
- C. Acquisition
- D. Support and Maintenance
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the tool lifecycle model, the evolution stage is when the tool is adapted to new requirements or environments, such as a new operating system. This stage involves modifying the tool to meet the changing needs of the users and the system. The evolution stage is followed by the retirement stage, when the tool is no longer used or supported. Tool Lifecycle ModelSoftware Testing Tools References:
* Work with performance and monitoring tools in finance and operations apps
* Software Testing Tools: A Comprehensive Guide
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which of the following is an advantage of specifying test conditions at a detailed level? [1]
- A. Can be used to identify test coverage gaps
- B. Improves maintainability and reduces ownership costs for the testware
- C. Can be used to leverage use cases for acceptance testing
- D. Saves time
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Can be used to identify test coverage gaps. This is because test conditions are the items or events of a component or system that will be verified by one or more test cases. Specifying test conditions at a detailed level can help to identify test coverage gaps, which are the areas or aspects of the component or system that are not covered by the test conditions or test cases. By identifying test coverage gaps, the test team can ensure that the testing is complete and consistent with the test objectives and scope. Test Conditions - ISTQB not-for-profit association References: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Test Conditions - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 22
You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring & diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed in the test plan? 1 credit
- A. Availability
- B. Safety
- C. Reliability
- D. Portability
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 23
You have written a defect report and have just been notified that it is in the "returned" state.
Who should take action on this defect? [1]
- A. The developer to whom the defect is assigned
- B. The tester who wrote the defect report
- C. The project manager who is responsible for the project
- D. The defect triage team
Answer: B
Explanation:
The person who should take action on this defect is the tester who wrote the defect report. This is because a defect report in the "returned" state means that the defect has been rejected or sent back to the tester for further clarification or investigation. The tester who wrote the defect report should review the feedback from the developer, the project manager, or the defect triage team, and take the appropriate action, such as providing more information, modifying the defect report, or closing the defect. Defect Reporting - ISTQB not-for-profit association References: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Defect Reporting - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following would be the TWO most appropriate examples of entry criteria documented in the system integration test plan? 2 credits
- A. The availability of the latest version of the capture-replay tool (for testing the interface with the newly developed test management tool).
- B. The percentage of decision coverage achieved during unit testing.
- C. The sign-off of a performance test software release note (test item transmittal report) by both development and testing showing that system performance meets the specified acceptance criteria.
- D. The percentage of acceptance test procedures scheduled for execution.
- E. The percentage of requirements coverage achieved during system integration test.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 25
During test process improvement it is recommended to use standards where possible. Standards originate from various sources and they cover different subjects in relation to testing Pick TWO sources of software standards, useful to software testing from the ones mentioned below. 1 credit
- A. ISO 9126-1 'Software engineering- Product quality Part 1:
Quality model' is an international standard, that provides a basis on which to define quality
assurance solutions. - B. BS-7925-2 'Software testing. Software component testing is a national standard used
internationally. It covers a number of testing techniques that may be useful both on component
testing level and on system testing level. - C. SY-395-01 'Standard for East Coast Hospital software' is a regional standard adapted from a
national one. Besides hospital software, this standard ought to be used also by other types of
software system in the region. - D. IEEE 829 'standard for software test documentation' is an international standard to be following
mandatory by all testing origination regardless of lifecycle models. - E. ISA 4126-1 'Software engineering- Product quality Part 1:
Quality model' is an international standard, that provides a basis on which to define quality
assurance solutions.
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which test management control option is most appropriate to adopt under these circumstances? 2 credits
- A. Advise the user community regarding the reduced scope of requirements and the additional incremental delivery.
- B. Arrange a meeting with the user community representatives to discuss the user interface.
- C. Reconsider the exit criteria and review the test plan in the context of the current situation.
- D. Introduce mandatory evening and weekend working to retrieve the 3 week slippage.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 27
You are a Test Manager on a new project. The software that is being created will be used to control the projectors in movie theaters. This is a time critical project because the software must be released before the Christmas holiday season which has the highest movie attendance of the year.
You have decided to implement a review process for the work products that are a part of this release to save both time and money. In order to expedite the training, you brought in a consultant to train the participants and moderators in proper review processes. Your team is enthusiastic about participating in the reviews.
The project is in the early planning stages. As the review leader, what is an appropriate activity for you to be doing at this point in the project? [3]
- A. Gathering metrics to determine the success of the review process
- B. Calculating the ROI for the review process
- C. Setting a minimum number of defects to be identified in each review
- D. Selecting the review items and the appropriate review type
Answer: D
Explanation:
As the review leader, one of your responsibilities is to plan the review process and select the review items and the appropriate review type for each item1. This activity should be done in the early planning stages of the project, as it will help to define the scope, objectives, and schedule of the reviews. The review items are the work products that will be reviewed, such as requirements, design, code, test cases, etc. The review type is the level of formality and rigor that will be applied to the review, such as informal review, walkthrough, technical review, or inspection2. The selection of the review items and the review type should be based on factors such as the criticality, complexity, and risk of the work products, the availability and expertise of the reviewers, the time and budget constraints, and the expected benefits and outcomes of the reviews3. Therefore, option A is the correct answer. Option B is incorrect because gathering metrics to determine the success of the review process is an activity that should be done after the review process is completed, not in the early planning stages. Option C is incorrect because calculating the ROI for the review process is an activity that should be done after the review process is completed, not in the early planning stages. Option D is incorrect because setting a minimum number of defects to be identified in each review is not an appropriate activity for the review leader, as it may create a false sense of quality or pressure on the reviewers. References: 1: ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager Syllabus, Section 2.2.3 2: ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager Syllabus, Section 2.2.2 3: Review Types - Testing Traveler, the post about review types
NEW QUESTION # 28
Your application development team is performing "test-driven" development. This is a core principal of which software development model?[1]
- A. Agile
- B. Spiral
- C. Sequential
- D. Iterative
Answer: A
Explanation:
Test-driven development (TDD) is a core principle of Agile software development. In TDD, test cases are created before the code is written, and the code is developed to pass these tests. This approach emphasizes requirements and solutions evolving through collaborative effort and is a key practice in Agile methodologies12.
References:The Agile Alliance describes TDD as a style of programming tightly interwoven with coding, testing, and design, which is a fundamental aspect of Agile development3. Wikipedia also notes that TDD is related to the test-first programming concepts of extreme programming, an Agile methodology This is because test-driven development (TDD) is a style of programming in which coding, testing, and design are tightly interwoven. TDD is a core principle of agile software development, which is an iterative and adaptive approach that values customer collaboration, working software, and responding to change. Agile Alliance References: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, What is Test Driven Development (TDD)? | Agile Alliance
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following are valid reasons for adopting a different life cycle (from the V model), for increments after the first year? 2 credits i. We do not have a clear understanding of the requirements from a customer perspective.
ii. We see the risk of delivering requested functionality late as being higher than the risk of delivering a lower quality product.
iii. We do not have a budget for additional regression testing which is needed to ensure that existing functionality is not compromised by future iterations.
iv. The company test strategy does not fit well within the V life cycle model.
- A. (i) and (iv)
- B. (i) and (ii)
- C. (ii) and (iv)
- D. (ii) and (iii)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Topic 6, Scenario 6, V4 "Independent Test Team"
You have for a while been trying to hire a second test automation specialist for your test team However, you did not have any luck in finding a suitable candidate. So now, you have been asked by IT management of XYZ to forward a proposal with alternative solutions for building an automated regression test suite at system test level over a period of 2 years including needed training and eventual handover to the test team.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
- A. Show trend analysis
- B. State recommendations for release
- C. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
- D. Give product risk status
- E. Show details on effort spent
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model? 1 credit
- A. All document reviews involve the development team.
- B. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
- C. Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.
- D. Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is completed.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 32
What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2 credits
- A. They enhance project communication.
- B. They can be performed without exercising the code.
- C. They find defects early.
- D. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 33
Your test team is in the process of completing final regression testing one week before the release date. One of your staff has just uncovered a critical defect that causes data corruption.
What should you do? [2]
- A. Write a high priority defect and follow the escalation communication plan as defined in your test plan
- B. Update the risks in your test plan to cover data corruption issues and update your test cases to be sure you test for this in the future
- C. Write a high priority defect and call the business stakeholders to warn them about it
- D. Update the weekly status charts and change the project status to red
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best action that you should take in this situation is to write a high priority defect and follow the escalation communication plan as defined in your test plan. This is because a critical defect that causes data corruption is a serious issue that can affect the quality, functionality, and reliability of the system, and it needs to be reported and resolved as soon as possible. By writing a high priority defect, you can document the details and the impact of the defect, and alert the development team and the project manager about it. By following the escalation communication plan, you can ensure that the defect is communicated to the appropriate stakeholders, such as the business sponsors, the customers, or the senior management, in a timely and effective manner, and that the necessary actions are taken to address the defect. Defect Reporting - ISTQB not-for-profit association References: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Defect Reporting - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 34
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