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Free ISTQB-CTFL Sample Questions and 100% Cover Real Exam Questions (Updated 409 Questions)
NEW QUESTION # 172
Confirmation testing is performed after:
- A. the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results
- B. a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed
- C. a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix
- D. a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible
Answer: B
Explanation:
Confirmation testing is performed after a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed. Confirmation testing, also known as re-testing, is the process of verifying that a defect has been resolved by running the test case that originally detected the defect.
Confirmation testing is usually done before regression testing, which is the process of verifying that no new defects have been introduced in the software as a result of changes or fixes. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 2.4.1, page 28; ISTQB Glossary v4.
02, page 15.
NEW QUESTION # 173
Which ONE of the following is a GOOD testing practice that is INDEPENDENT of the chosen SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle) model?
- A. For every software development activity, there is a corresponding testing activity, ensuring that all development activities are subject to quality assurance.
- B. Different test levels have specific and overlapping test objectives, allowing tests to be appropriate to specific test object types while managing redundancy.
- C. Testers are involved in reviewing work products as soon as the final version of this documentation is available so that this earlier testing and defect detection can support the "shift-left" strategy.
- D. Test analysis and design for a specific test level begin during the corresponding development phase of the SDLC, allowing testing to follow the principle of late testing.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
Different test levels (unit, integration, system, acceptance) have specific objectives while sometimes overlapping to ensure comprehensive testing (D). Option A contradicts shift-left principles, B encourages late testing (which is ineffective), and C incorrectly assumes that all development activities require direct test actions.
NEW QUESTION # 174
Which of the following statements about white-box testing is FALSE?
- A. Achieving full code coverage for a component or a system ensures that it has been fully tested
- B. Static testing can benefit from using code-related white-box test techniques during code reviews.
- C. White-box testing allows suggesting test cases for increasing coverage levels which are based on objective measures
- D. Black-box testing can benefit from using code-related white-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Achieving full code coverage does not guarantee that the component or system is fully tested or free of defects. Code coverage metrics indicate the extent to which the source code has been tested, but they do not account for the quality of the tests or whether all possible scenarios have been considered. Other types of testing, including functional, performance, and security testing, are necessary to ensure comprehensive testing. The ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0 highlights that while high code coverage is beneficial, it does not equate to complete testing.
NEW QUESTION # 175
During system testing phase of a word processor, a tester finds that on opening a file from a particular set of files, which are part of a critical workflow, the word processor crashes. Which of the following is the next step the tester should take poor to recording the deviation?
- A. Try to identify the code fragment causing the problem
- B. Report the incident as is without any further action
- C. Send an email to the developer and not report the bug
- D. Try to recreate the incident before reporting
Answer: D
Explanation:
An incident is any event that occurs during testing that requires investigation. An incident report is a document that records the details of an incident. The next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation is to try to recreate the incident before reporting. This can help confirm that the incident is reproducible and not caused by a random or external factor. This can also help gather more information about the incident, such as the steps to reproduce it, the expected and actual results, the severity and priority of the incident, or any screenshots or logs that can illustrate the incident. Trying to identify the code fragment causing the problem is not the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation, as this is a debugging activity that is usually performed by developers after receiving the incident report. Sending an email to the developer and not reporting the bug is not the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation, as this is an informal and unstructured way of communicating incidents that can lead to confusion, inconsistency or loss of information. Reporting the incident as is without any further action is not the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation, as this can result in incomplete or inaccurate incident reports that can hamper the investigation and resolution of incidents. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page 32-33.
NEW QUESTION # 176
Which of the following tools is most likely to detect defects in functions or methods in source code?
- A. unit test framework tool
- B. monitoring tool
- C. test design tool
- D. configuration management tool
Answer: A
Explanation:
A unit test framework tool is a tool that supports the creation, execution, and reporting of unit tests, which are tests that verify the functionality and quality of individual software components (such as functions or methods) in source code. A unit test framework tool can help to detect defects in functions or methods in source code by providing features such as test case generation, test case execution, test result comparison, test coverage measurement, etc. Some examples of unit test framework tools are JUnit, NUnit, TestNG, etc. The other options are not tools that are likely to detect defects in functions or methods in source code. A configuration management tool is a tool that supports the management and control of different versions and variants of software products or components. A test design tool is a tool that supports the design and generation of test cases based on some criteria or rules. A monitoring tool is a tool that monitors the behavior or performance of a system or component under test. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 10.
NEW QUESTION # 177
Which of the following statements about branch coverage is true?
- A. If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have surely been exercised
- B. If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have surely been exercised
- C. Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage
- D. The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually lower than that needed to achieve full statement coverage
Answer: C
Explanation:
Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage, which is a test coverage criterion that requires that all branches in the control flow of the code are executed at least once by the test cases. A branch is a basic block of code that has a single entry point and a single exit point, and a decision is a point in the code where the control flow can take more than one direction, such as an if-then-else statement, a switch-case statement, a loop statement, etc. The decision outcomes are the possible paths that can be taken from a decision, such as the then branch or the else branch, the case branch or the default branch, the loop body or the loop exit, etc. The other statements are false, because:
* The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually higher than that needed to achieve full statement coverage, which is a test coverage criterion that requires that all executable statements in the code are executed at least once by the test cases. This is because branch coverage is a stronger criterion than statement coverage, as it implies statement coverage, but not vice versa. For example, a single test case can achieve full statement coverage for an if-then-else statement, but two test cases are needed to achieve full branch coverage, as both the then branch and the else branch need to be exercised.
* If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have not necessarily been exercised, as unconditional branches are branches that do not depend on any decision, and are always executed, such as a goto statement, a break statement, a return statement, etc.
Unconditional branches are not part of the branch coverage criterion, as they do not represent different paths in the control flow of the code. However, they are part of the statement coverage criterion, as they are executable statements in the code.
* If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have not necessarily been exercised, as a decision table is a test design technique that represents the logical relationships between multiple conditions and their corresponding actions, in a tabular format. A decision table can have more combinations of conditions than the number of decision outcomes in the code, as each condition can have two or more possible values, such as true or false, yes or no, etc. For example, a decision table with four conditions can have 16 combinations of conditions, but the corresponding code may have only two decision outcomes, such as pass or fail. To exercise allcombinations of conditions in a decision table, a stronger test coverage criterion is needed, such as condition combination coverage, which requires that all possible combinations of condition outcomes in the code are executed at least once by the test cases. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
* ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.3.1, Test Coverage Criteria Based on the Structure of the Software
* ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Branch Coverage, Statement Coverage, Branch, Decision, Decision Outcome, Unconditional Branch, Decision Table, Condition Combination Coverage
NEW QUESTION # 178
Your organization's test strategy states that it is desirable to use more than one method for estimating test effort. You are responsible for estimating test effort for the next project. Based on historical data, the development-to-test effort ratio is 5:3.
The initial estimate for the development effort is 450 person-days.
Which ONE of the following options corresponds to the estimated test effort using the ratio-based method?
- A. 750 person-days
- B. 270 person-days
- C. 720 person-days
- D. 180 person-days
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
The ratio-based estimation method relies on historical relationships between development and testing effort.
Using the given 5:3 ratio:
Thus, the correct answer is 270 person-days (D).
* (A) and (C) are incorrect as they overestimate the effort.
* (B) underestimates the testing effort based on the ratio.
Ratio-based estimation helps allocate resources effectively based on past project data.
Reference: ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 5.1.4 - Effort Estimation in Testing
NEW QUESTION # 179
What does the "absence-of-defects fallacy" refer to in software development?
- A. A misconception that software verification is unnecessary
- B. The need for constant system quality assurance and improvements.
- C. The idea that fixing defects is NOT important to meeting user needs.
- D. The belief that thoroughly testing all requirements guarantees system success.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 180
The fact that defects are usually not evenly distributed among the various modules that make up a software application, but rather their distribution tend to reflect the Pareto principle:
- A. is a false myth
- B. is expressed by the testing principle referred to as Tests wear out'
- C. is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Bug prediction'
- D. is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Defects cluster together'
Answer: D
Explanation:
The fact that defects are usually not evenly distributed among the various modules that make up a software application, but rather their distribution tend to reflect the Pareto principle, is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Defects cluster together'. This principle states that a small number of modules contain most of the defects detected, or that a small number of causes are responsible for most of the defects. This principle can be used to guide the test analysis and design activities, by prioritizing thetesting of the most critical or risky modules, or by applying more rigorous test techniques to them. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
References: ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 1.2.1, page 11; ISTQB® Glossary v4.02, page 16.
NEW QUESTION # 181
Which of the following is correct with regards to debugging?
- A. Debugging identifies the cause of a failure
- B. Debugging is considered part of the testing activities
- C. Debugging is often performed by test engineers
- D. Debugging is intended to find as many defects as possible in the code
Answer: A
Explanation:
Debugging is the process of finding, analyzing and removing the causes of failures in software. Debugging is not considered part of testing, but rather a development activity that can involve testing. Debugging is not intended to find as many defects as possible, but rather to fix the specific failure that was observed.
Debugging is usually performed by developers, not by test engineers. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 1, page 6.
NEW QUESTION # 182
To be able to define testable acceptance criteria, specific topics need to be addressed. In the table below are the topics matched to an incorrect description. Match the topics (the left column) with the correct description (the right column) TopicDescription
- A. How the system performs the specific behaviour.
8: Quality characteristicsB: A sequence of actions between an external actor and the system, to accomplish a specific goal or business task. - B. External interfacesE: Activities that can only be performed in the system under certain conditions defined by outside procedures and constraints.
- C. A to C, B to A, C to B. D to E and E to D
- D. Business rulesD; Description of the connections between the system to be developed and the outside world.
- E. ScenariosC: The externally observable behaviour with user actions as input operating under certain configurations.
- F. A TO A, B TO B, CTOB, DTO E AND E TO D
- G. A to C, B to A, C to B, D to D and E to E
- H. A to E, B to A, C to B, D to C and E to D
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct matching of the topics with their descriptions is as follows:
* Functional behaviour: The externally observable behaviour with user actions as input operating under certain configurations (A to C).
* Quality characteristics: How the system performs the specific behaviour (B to A).
* Scenarios: A sequence of actions between an external actor and the system, to accomplish a specific goal or business task (C to B).
* Business rules: Activities that can only be performed in the system under certain conditions defined by outside procedures and constraints (D to E).
* External interfaces: Description of the connections between the system to be developed and the outside world (E to D).
NEW QUESTION # 183
Given the following statements:
1. It can prevent defects by manual examination of the functional specification
2. It is effective since it can be performed very early in the software development life cycle
3. It can detect the failures in the running application
4. It can help eliminate defects in user stories
5. It can verify externally visible behaviors
Which set of statements represent values ONLY for static testing?
- A. 1,3, 4.5
- B. 2,4,5
- C. 1,2, 3. 4,5
- D. 1,2,4
Answer: D
Explanation:
Static testing involves reviewing and inspecting the code, requirements, or design documents without executing the code. It can prevent defects, is effective early in the software development life cycle, and can help eliminate defects in user stories.
Option 1: "It can prevent defects by manual examination of the functional specification" - This is a value of static testing.
Option 2: "It is effective since it can be performed very early in the software development life cycle" - This is a value of static testing.
Option 3: "It can detect the failures in the running application" - This is a v (ISTQB not-for-profit association)namic testing, not static testing.
Option 4: "It can help eliminate defects in user stories" - This is a value of static testing.
Option 5: "It can verify externally visible behaviors" - This is a value of dynamic testing, not static testing.
Therefore, the correct set of statements representing values only for static testing is 1, 2, 4, which corresponds to answer C 6 source.
Reference:
Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0
ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 4.0 (2023)
NEW QUESTION # 184
Following a risk-based testing approach you have designed 10 tests to cover a product risk with a high-risk level. You want to estimate, adopting the three-point test estimation technique, the test effort required to reduce the risk level to zero by executing those 10 tests. You made the following three initial estimates:
* most optimistic = 6 person hours
* most likely = 30 person hours
* most pessimistic = 54 person hours
Based only on the given information, which of the following answers about the three-point test estimation technique applied to this problem is true?
- A. The final estimate is between 6 person hours and 54 person hours
- B. The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the initial most likely estimate as the final estimate
- C. The final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours
- D. The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the arithmetic mean of the three initial estimates as the final estimate
Answer: C
Explanation:
The three-point test estimation technique is a method of estimating the test effort based on three initial estimates: the most optimistic, the most likely, and the most pessimistic. The technique uses a weighted average of these three estimates to calculate the final estimate, which is also known as the expected value. The formula for the expected value is:
Expected value = (most optimistic + 4 * most likely + most pessimistic) / 6 Using the given values, the expected value is:
Expected value = (6 + 4 * 30 + 54) / 6 Expected value = 30 person hours However, the expected value is not the only factor to consider when estimating the test effort. The technique also calculates the standard deviation, which is a measure of the variability or uncertainty of the estimates.
The formula for the standard deviation is:
Standard deviation = (most pessimistic - most optimistic) / 6
Using the given values, the standard deviation is:
Standard deviation = (54 - 6) / 6 Standard deviation = 8 person hours
The standard deviation can be used to determine a range of possible values for the test effort, based on a certain level of confidence. For example, using a 68% confidence level, the range is:
Expected value ± standard deviation
Using the calculated values, the range is:
30 ± 8 person hours
Therefore, the final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours, which is option A.
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 2.3.2, page 24-25; ISTQB Glossary v4.
02, page 33.
NEW QUESTION # 185
Which ONE of the following statements about acceptance testing is NOT correct?
- A. Acceptance testing is the last level of testing performed prior to system release.
- B. The customers or system users are often responsible for the acceptance testing.
- C. Testing of disaster recovery and backup/restore is usually NOT part of acceptance testing.
- D. The main goal of acceptance testing is to build confidence in the system, not find defects.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Acceptance testing is a level of testing performed to verify that a software product meets the agreed acceptance criteria and is acceptable for delivery. Acceptance testing is often performed by the customers or system users, who are the main stakeholders of the software product. The main goal of acceptance testing is to build confidence in the system, not find defects, as defects should have been detected and fixed in earlier levels of testing. Acceptance testing is the last level of testing performed prior to system release, unless there are any changes or fixes that require re-testing. Testing of disaster recovery and backup/restore is usually part of acceptance testing, as these are important aspects of system reliability and security that affect the customer satisfaction and trust. Therefore, statement A is not correct, while statements B, C and D are correct. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 2, page 20-21.
NEW QUESTION # 186
Given the following priorities and dependencies for these test cases:
SEE ATTACHMENT
Which of the following test execution schedules BEST takes into account the priorities and technical and logical dependencies?
- A. TC1 - TC3 - TC2 - TC4 - TC6 - TC5
- B. TC1 - TC3 - TC2 - TC4 - TC5 - TC6
- C. TC2 - TC4 - TC1 - TC3 - TC5 - TC6
- D. TC3 - TC4 - TC2 - TC6 - TC1 - TC5
Answer: B
Explanation:
When scheduling test cases, priorities and dependencies must be considered. The best execution order will respect both the logical dependencies and the priorities assigned to each test case.
Given the options, the correct order considering the priorities and dependencies is:
* TC1 (Priority 1)
* **TC (ISTQB not-for-profit association)ity 2, dependent on TC1)
* TC2 (Priority 3, dependent on TC1)
* TC4 (Priority 4)
* TC5 (Priority 5)
* TC6 (Priority 6, dependent on TC4)
According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, understanding dependencies and scheduling tests accordingly is crucial for effective test execution6†source.
References:
* Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0
* ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 4.0 (2023)
NEW QUESTION # 187
4 equivalence classes are given for integer values:
0 < x <100
100<= x <= 200
200 < x < 500
x >= 500
Which of the following options represent correct set of data for valid equivalence class partitions?
- A. 50; 100; 250; 1000
- B. 0.50; 100; 150.200.350.500;
- C. 0. 1.99, 100.200,201.499, 500;
- D. 50; 100; 200. 1000
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct set of data for valid equivalence class partitions should include one value from each equivalence class, and no value from outside the range. Option C satisfies this condition, as it has one value from each of the four equivalence classes (50, 100, 250, 500). Option A has two values from the same equivalence class (100 and 200), option B has values outside the range (0 and 0.99), and option D has two values from the same equivalence class (1000 and 500). Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 35.
NEW QUESTION # 188
Which of the following is a function of a dynamic analysis tool?
- A. Provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents
- B. Provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items
- C. Execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects
- D. Monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program
Answer: D
Explanation:
A dynamic analysis tool is a tool that performs analysis of a software product based on its behavior during execution. A dynamic analysis tool can monitor various aspects of a program's run-time performance, such as memory usage, CPU load, response time, or resource leaks. A dynamic analysis tool can monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program, which can help detect defects such as memory leaks, buffer overflows, or memory corruption. A dynamic analysis tool cannot provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents, as this is a function of a test management tool. A dynamic analysis tool cannot execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects, as this is a function of a debugging tool. A dynamic analysis tool cannot provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items, as this is a function of a configuration management tool. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 6, page 56-57.
NEW QUESTION # 189
Given the following review types and review characteristics:
a. Pair review
b. Walkthrough
c. Technical review
d. Inspection
1. Formal
2. Informal
3. Purposes include evaluating the quality of the work product under review and generating new ideas (e.g., brainstorming solutions)
4. Purposes include Improving the software product and training the review participants Which of the following BEST matches the review type with the review characteristic?
- A. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
- B. a-4, b-3. c-2. d-1
- C. a-2, b-4, c-3. d-1
- D. a-1. b-4, c-3. d-2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Pair reviews are informal and typically involve two people reviewing the work product together, often in an informal setting. Walkthroughs are more formal and aim to educate stakeholders and evaluate the product, serving the dual purpose of improving the product and training participants. Technical reviews have a strong focus on improving the product's quality, often involving technical stakeholders. Inspections are the most formal review type and are aimed primarily at detecting defects.
Reference:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.2.3 "Review Types".
NEW QUESTION # 190
4 equivalence classes are given for integer values:
0 < x <100
100<= x <= 200
200 < x < 500
x >= 500
Which of the following options represent correct set of data for valid equivalence class partitions?
- A. 50; 100; 250; 1000
- B. 0.50; 100; 150.200.350.500;
- C. 0. 1.99, 100.200,201.499, 500;
- D. 50; 100; 200. 1000
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct set of data for valid equivalence class partitions should include one value from each equivalence class, and no value from outside the range. Option C satisfies this condition, as it has one value from each of the four equivalence classes (50, 100, 250, 500). Option A has two values from the same equivalence class (100 and 200), option B has values outside the range (0 and 0.99), and option D has two values from the same equivalence class (1000 and 500). Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 35.
NEW QUESTION # 191
Consider the following statements (I to V) about software testing:
I. Can be applied to non-executable work products.
II. Can be used to measure performance efficiency.
III. Can lead to the detection of defects.
IV. Can find defects directly.
V. Can identify unexpected behaviors caused by potential defects.
Which ONE of the following options is the list that characterizes static tests the BEST?
- A. Statements II, III, and V
- B. Statements I, III, and IV
- C. Statements II, IV, and V
- D. Statements I, II, and IV
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
Static testing (A) applies to non-executable work products (I), such as requirements or code reviews. It also leads to defect detection (III) and finds defects directly (IV) without executing the software. Options B, C, and D incorrectly associate static testing with performance measurement (II) or dynamic testing aspects (V).
Reference: ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 3.1.2 - The Value of Static Testing
NEW QUESTION # 192
Which of the following project scenario gives the BEST example where maintenance testing should be triggered?
- A. Defect was found in a pre-released version of the customer service application
- B. Delivery of the hot fix to mobile operating system and ensuring that it still works
- C. Completion of architecture of the bank system
- D. Release of the early draft of the low level project design of an loT application
Answer: B
Explanation:
Maintenance testing is triggered by changes such as bug fixes, enhancements, or environmental changes.
Option A: "Completion of architecture of the bank system" is not a typical scenario for maintenance testing, as it describes a design phase rather than an operational change.
Option B: "Release of the early draft of the low level project design of an IoT application" is again not suitable for maintenance testing, as it refers to the design phase.
Option C: "Defect was found in a pre-released version of the customer service application" is closer but not quite accurate, as maintenance testing focuses on changes mad (ISTQB not-for-profit association)system is released.
Option D: "Delivery of the hot fix to mobile operating system and ensuring that it still works" is the best example as it directly involves testing after a fix has been implemented.
Therefore, the correct answer is D#6source#.
References:
Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0
ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 4.0 (2023)
NEW QUESTION # 193
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